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Question to previous post
Hi,
I looked at the article CONTROLLED OVARIAN HYPERSTIMULATION (COH) IN “POOR RESPONDERS”
I have abnormal high FSH levels, and did not respond to Follistim. My question is, is it usual practice for a clinic to recommend the "“modified” long protocol" mentioned in the article?
My concern is that I was told there is nothing left to try as I did not respond to follistim.
Thank you in advance for any help.
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No this is our protocol which we found useful in a few pts with decreased ov. reserve. We use 750 IU of stim meds with lupron-antagon combo along with estrogen priming. A protocol of "last resort". We see a lot of women in this situation. Hope that helps.
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